Pavle Simović
77 questions:
- Where in the Scriptures does it say that God is a Trinity?
- Where in the Bible are the terms “God the Son” or “God the Holy Spirit” found?
- Was Jesus wrong in declaring that His Father was “the only true God” (John 17:3)?
- Why does God say in the First Commandment of the Decalogue, “I am the Lord thy God… Thou shalt have no other gods before me” (Exodus 20:3,4), ), if the Deity is in fact a plural of three gods?
- Did Jesus agree with the declaration, “Hear, Israel! The Lord is our God, the Lord is one!” (Deuteronomy 6:4; compare Mark 12:28-34)?
- Did Jesus misrepresent the relationship between Him and God when He said, “My Father is greater than I” (John 14:28)? How is it possible that the Father is greater among the “co-equal” members of the Trinity?
- How could the apostle Paul declare that “the head of Christ is God” (1 Corinthians 11:3) if they are equal members of the Trinity?
- Did the apostle Paul agree that there is only one God (Romans 3:30)?
- Why does Paul make a unique distinction when he speaks of “eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God” (1 Timothy 1:17), if there are three co-eternal gods?
- Did apostle Paul err in declaring that “there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things…” (1 Corinthians 8:6)?
- Did apostle James perhaps believe in more than one God (James 2:19)?
- Why does Judas distinguish between “the only Lord [Despotos in Greek, lord or owner in the absolute sense, the one who has complete jurisdiction over all] God, and our Lord [Greek Kurios] Jesus Christ” (Jude 1:4)?
- How is it that Paul states that there is “one Lord [Jesus]” and one God and Father of all, who is above all” (Ephesians 4:4-6), if there are in fact three co-equal gods?
- Did God misrepresent His “co-equal” and “eternal fellow” of the “trinity” when He revealed after Jesus’ baptism “This is my beloved Son” (Matthew 3:17)?
- Did God once again misinform Jesus’ disciples about His true identity on the Mount of Transfiguration when He repeated “This is my beloved Son” (Matthew 17:5)?
- Did Peter misidentify Jesus when he declared, “Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God” (Matthew 16:13-17; compare John 6:69), or did he receive confirmation that it was from the Father? Why didn’t he recognize Jesus as the “second person of the deity”?
- Why did Paul in his first sermon, immediately after his conversion, “preach Christ that he is the Son of God” (Acts 9:20)? Shouldn’t he have said that he was a “member of the divine trinity”?
- Was Martha wrong when she confessed, “Thou art the Christ, the Son of God, which should come into the world” (John 11:27)?
- Why did the accusation of the Jewish leaders and priests against Jesus remain only in the context of His presentation as “Son of God” and “Christ / Messiah” (Matthew 26:63; Luke 22:67, 70; John 19:7), if He is ever anything suggested for himself that he was a “god”, “second person of a deity”, etc.
- Did Philip misrepresent the gospel to the Ethiopian courtier who finally made a confession of faith: “I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God” (Acts 8:37)?
- Why did God need to give the Son “life in himself” (John 5:26) if the Son is in fact the “second co-eternal person of the deity” who has always had it?
- How is it that even demons (fallen angels) knew that Jesus was “the Son of God” (Matthew 8:29)? Could those who once dwelt in the presence of God have been misinformed?
- If God is “triune” (3 in 1 and 1 in 3),does it mean: i) that He sent Himself into the world; ii) that He died to reconcile the world with Himself; iii) that He resurrected Himself; iv) that He ascended Himself to Heaven; c) that He prays and intercedes before Himself in Heaven; vi) that He is the sole mediator between man and Himself; vii) that He is invisible and yet seen; viii) that God is omnipotent still needed to be strengthen by angels; ix) that He is an omniscient God but did not know the day of His return; x) that He is as great as His Father but that the Father is greater than Him; xi) that He is equal to the Father but He is still the Father; xii) that He is the Son but of the same age as the Father; xiii) that He is the Son who has the Father, and God who has no Father; xiv) that He is a born Son and an unborn God; xv) that He is truly God and truly man; xvi) that He came out of Himself; xvii) that He gave strength to Himself; xviii) that He thanked to Himself; xix) that He bore a testimony to Himself; xx) that He has returned to Himself; xxi) that He sits to the right of himself; xxii) that He is His own Father and His own Son; xxiii) that He left Heaven and yet was there all the time…
- Why is the Son of God called “the image of the invisible God” (Collosians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3) if He is in fact another co-eternal and co-equal god?
- Why is Jesus called “the firstborn of every creature” (Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:6) if He is “co-eternal” and “co-equal” God with the Father and the Holy Spirit?
- How is it that Jesus Christ is the “only begotten son” (monogenes) of the Father (John 1:14; 1:18; 3:16; 3:18; 1 John 4:9) if he is a “co-eternal member of the trinity”?
- How and why the Son (Jesus Christ) always and without exception receives authorization from the Father and is instructed or appointed by God the Father (John 5:22; Matthew 28:18; John 8:28, 42; Hebrews 1:6, etc.) if He himself is a co-eternal and co-equal god?
- Is the Holy Spirit, if he is an equal member of the divine Trinity, actually the Father of Christ (Matthew 1:18)?
- Why does John mention only God and the Word when he refers to the creation (John 1:1-3, 14)?
- How is it that Paul lists only two divine beings who were involved in the creation (Ephesians 3:9; Colossians 1:15-16; Hebrews 1:1-2)?
- Why in Paul’s, Peter’s and John’s writings it always says that grace and peace come only from the Father and the Son (Romans 1:7; 1 Corinthians 1:3; 2 Corinthians 1:2; Galatians 1:3; Ephesians 1:2 Philippians 1:2, Colossians 1:2, 1 Thessalonians 1:1, 2 Thessalonians 1:2, 1 Timothy 1:2, 2 Timothy 1:2, Titus 1:4, Philemon 1:3, Peter 1:2; 2 John 1:3)?
- Why did Jesus completely omit the Holy Spirit when He declared that eternal life depends on knowing God and Him (John 17:3)?
- Who and why forged the text in 1 John 5:7, a section known as Comma Johanneum? Is it because of the support of the dogma of the trinity that does not exist in the Bible?
- Because at Pentecost, just ten days after Christ’s last instructions to the disciples before His ascension into heaven (Matthew 28:19-20; Acts 1:2-3), Peter preached that “everyone should be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ” (Acts 2:38), does this mean that he had already “forgotten” the Trinitarian baptismal formula, that his inspiration under which he preached was not valid, or that this formula in Matthew’s Gospel was falsified in the fourth century, as it was (scientifically proven) Comma Johanneum (1 John 5:7)?
- How is it that in the New Covenant there is no recorded example of someone being baptized “in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,” but only in the name of Jesus Christ (Acts 2:38; Acts 8:12; Acts 8:16); Acts 10:48; Acts 19:5; Acts 22:16; Romans 6:3; 1 Corinthians 1:13 and Galatians 3:27)?
- Why does the Bible never teach us to love, worship, or pray to the Holy Spirit?
- Jesus declares that only the Son saw the Father (John 6:46; Luke 10:22). How can the Holy Spirit be a literal being without ever seeing the Father?
- Why did the apostle John omit the Holy Spirit when he said that “our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son Jesus Christ” (1 John 1:3)?
- How is it that the Bible speaks only of the thrones of the Father and the Son, and the throne of the Holy Spirit is never mentioned?
- Why did the Father never speak to the Holy Spirit?
- Why did Jesus never speak to the Holy Spirit?
- Why did the Holy Spirit never speak to Jesus?
- Why did the Holy Spirit never speak to the Father?
- Why did the Holy Spirit manifest in the form of a dove at Jesus’ baptism (Matthew 3:16) if He is God Himself? Wouldn’t that be a direct violation of God’s Commandment on the Prohibition of Idolatry and the Representation of Deity by Material Things (Exodus 20:4; Deuteronomy 4:15-19)?
- Why does Paul say that there is only one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4), while the Bible speaks of the “Spirit of God”, the “Spirit of Christ” (Romans 8:9), the “Spirit of the Lord”? Is it a separate being or the Spirit spoken of throughout Scripture: “God sent the Spirit of his Son” (Galatians 4:6); the spirit through which the Father and the Son dwell in the faithful (John 14:23; Ephesians 2:18; Galatians 2:20; Philippians 1:19; 1 Peter 1:11)?
- How many “holy spirits” are there if the dogma of the trinity is correct?
- How is it that “the day and hour of Christ’s second coming” no one knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father” (Mark 13:32)? Why is the Holy Spirit not mentioned as an equal God who should also know this?
- Why does Scripture call “antichrists” those who deny the literal Father and Son (1 John 2:22-23; Jude 1:4)?
- How is it that the Son of God is the only being who knows the Father (Luke 10:22)?
- How is it that the Father and the Son are the only divine beings that one can hate (John 15:23-24)?
- How is it that only two beings are involved in the intercession for us if, according to the dogma of the Trinity, the Holy Spirit is the mediator: “For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5)?
- Why does the same verse (1 Timothy 2:5) explicitly state that there is “only one God” and why is Jesus not even called “God-man”?
- Why do we owe “Salvation to our God who sits upon the throne, and unto the Lamb” (Revelation 7:10)? Does the Holy Spirit have no merit?
- If Jesus Christ is one of the three co-eternal gods, how could He die on the cross and testify by himself that he was “dead” (Revelation 1:18), if we know that God is the only immortal being (1 Timothy 6:16)?
- How is it that in divine revelation, Stephen saw in heaven only “the Son of man standing at the right hand of God” (Acts 7:56)? Where did the third member disappear?
- How is it that we will be “heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ” (Romans 8:17)? Where is the third?
- Why does not the Holy Spirit testify of Christ, but only the Father who sent him (John 8:18)?
- Why does Jesus say, “Believe in God, believe also in me” (John 14:1) if there is yet another god we should believe in?
- Why does John associate faith in Jesus Christ, the Son of God, with the acquisition of eternal life (John 20:31; 1 John 5:10-12) if God is in fact a trinity of three co-eternal gods?
- Why does John say that the world is conquered by those who believe that Jesus is the Son of God (1 John 5:5)?
- Why does the “antichrist” deny only the Father and the Son (1 John 2:22,23) if there is also a holy spirit god?
- Why one hundred and forty four thousand only “having His [Christ’s] Father’ name written in their foreheads” (Revelation 14:1) if there are two more co-equal gods?
- Why do the saved in Heaven say that “salvation (owes) our God, who sits on the throne, and the Lamb” (Revelation 7:10)? How is it possible that they don’t know about the “third person of the deity” and thank him too?
- Why is there no Holy Spirit in the “kingdom of Christ and God” (Ephesians 5:5)?
- Why, after the completion of the Plan of Salvation, there is again no Holy Spirit on God’s throne, but only the throne of God and the Lamb / Christ (Revelation 22:1)?
- Why will “the Son also himself be subject unto him (God)” after the realization of the Plan of Salvation if he is a co-equal god (1 Corinthians 15:27, 28)?
- Why do we honor only the Father and the Son (John 5:23)?
- Why does the apostle James say of himself that he is “a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ” (James 1:1)? Did he refuse to serve the third?
- Why does Jesus emphasize that He is in unity only with the Father (John 10:30) if there is a “triune God”?
- Why did Jesus promise His disciples and Christians in all ages to come that He “will not leave us comfortless” (John 14:18) and that He would be “with you always, even unto the end of the world” (Matthew 28:20) if the Holy Spirit as a separate being would be the one who performs the act of conviction, consolation, etc.?
- How is it that the Spirit of truth does not speak for himself, but the Father who tells him what to say, and that “He” is Christ (John 8:28; 12:49; 14:10, 24 and 16:13)?
- How is it that through the complete Scriptures, God the Father is always the Source and the highest Authority from whom everything comes, and the Son is God’s divine channel, through which everything is (John 12:49; John 14:10; John 14 John 24:28), either in physical or spiritual manifestation, if there are three co-equal gods (the third is actually nowhere to be found, while in the two mentioned there is a clear hierarchy and domain of action that never changes)?
- Who actually raised Jesus from the grave, if God is triune (see Acts 2:24; 2:32; 3:15; 4:10; 5:30; 10:40; 13:30,33,34,37; 17:31; Romans 4:24; 6:4; 10:9; 1 Corinthians 6:14; 15:15; 2 Corinthians 4:14; Galatians 1:1; Ephesians 1:20; Colossians 2:12; 1 Thessalonians 1:10; 1 Peter 1:21)?
- How is it that Jesus Christ, after ascending and taking authority in Heaven (Matthew 28:18), needed God the Father to give Him revelation (Revelation 1:1) if He himself is an equal omniscient god?
- If Jesus is a co-eternal God with the Father, why did he tell Mary Magdalene that He ascends to “my God and your God” (John 20:17)?
- Why in Revelation 3:12 does Jesus call his Father “my God” three times? (see also Matthew 27:46) Is there only one true God in Heaven or perhaps a hierarchy of lower and higher gods? How does this fit into the dogma of the “triune god” and the three “co-eternal” and “co-equal” beings?
- If Jesus was obviously not a member of a “trinity” or a Trinitarian, then why are you?